This Exercise $12$ page $27$ from Hoffman and Kunze's book Linear Algebra.
The result o Example $16$ suggests that perhaps the matrix
$$A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & \frac{1}{2} & \ldots & \frac{1}{n}\\ \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} & \ldots & \frac{1}{n+1}\\ \vdots & \vdots & & \vdots \\ \frac{1}{n} &\frac{1}{n+1} &\ldots &\frac{1}{2n-1} \end{bmatrix}$$
is invertible and $A^{-1}$ has integer entries. Can you prove that?
I will copy their words before that example:
Some people find it less awkward to carry along two sequences of matrices, one describing the reduction of $A$ to the identity and the other recording the effect of the same sequence of operations starting from the identity.
In this post, Adrián Barquero says:
If your linear algebra textbook is Kenneth Hoffmann and Ray Kunze's Linear Algebra book then I was in the same situation you're right now a few years ago, but I was adviced at the moment that this particular exercise wasn't as easy as one might expect at first.
The matrix you have is called the Hilbert matrix and the question you have was already asked a couple of times in math overflow here and here. They have excellent answers so I will just point you to them.
My question: Is it possible answer the question made by the authors without using high techniques? I am not allowed to use determinants here.
PS: Those answers in MO don't answer the question above. I apologise if this question is unappropriated or if I was unable to understand their answers.