Given a group $G$ and $K<G$. Let $H_1,H_2$ be subgroups in $G$ satisfying:
\begin{align} &H_1\triangleleft K;\\ &H_2\triangleleft K;\\ &H_1\sim_G H_2.\quad\mbox{(They are conjugate to each other in $G$)} \end{align}
Is it true that
\begin{align} H_1\sim_{N_G(K)}H_2, \end{align}
where $N_G(K)$ denotes the normalizer of $K$ in $G$? Or is there a counterexample?
Any idea would be appreciated.