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This question already has an answer here:

Can someone help me prove this. It is a proof of the sum and difference of the greatest common denominator.

Given: x and y are integers with a GCD of 1.

Prove: that the GCD of x + y and x − y is either 1 or 2.

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marked as duplicate by Mark Fantini, Hans Engler, quid, N. F. Taussig, Lord_Farin Jan 17 '15 at 16:07

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • $\begingroup$ Follow : math.stackexchange.com/questions/1105240/… $\endgroup$ – lab bhattacharjee Jan 17 '15 at 14:27
  • $\begingroup$ @labbhattacharjee I'm not quite understanding how that relates to my problem. $\endgroup$ – Alexis Dailey Jan 17 '15 at 14:30
  • $\begingroup$ Have you followed my answer , there ? $\endgroup$ – lab bhattacharjee Jan 17 '15 at 14:30
  • $\begingroup$ It seems you are talking about the greatest common divisor. $\endgroup$ – quid Jan 17 '15 at 15:30
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$\gcd(a+b,a-b)=\gcd(a+b, a+b+a-b)=\gcd(a+b,2a)$ which divides $2a$, but any divisor of $a$ does not divide $b$, so it divides $2$, so it is equal (modulo multiplication by $\pm 1$) to $1$ or $2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ I may not understand what you intend by proof, but that is a proof in my understanding of what a proof is. $\endgroup$ – ujsgeyrr1f0d0d0r0h1h0j0j_juj Jan 17 '15 at 14:44
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Since $\mathbf{GCD}(x,y)=1$ these two $\Bbb Z$ are coprime.

$$\gcd(x+y,x-y)=\gcd(x+y, x+y+x-y)=\gcd(x+y,2x)$$

This divides $2x$, and since any divisor of $x$ does not divide $y$, it must be that it divides $2\implies$ it is either $1$ or $2$

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  • $\begingroup$ Sorry @Robert, your answer beat mine by miles $\endgroup$ – qqqqq Jan 17 '15 at 14:48

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