2
$\begingroup$

Is the set of solution to $x_0^2+x_1^2-x_2^2=0$ homeomorphic to the set of solution to $x_0^2-x_1^2=0$ in $ \mathbb{P}^2 (\mathbb{R})$? I think one can show that the first set is homeomorphic to $S^1$, and that by removing the point $[0,0,1]$ from the second it is no more connected, hence they aren't homeomorphic. However I would like to learn other solutions or have a confirmation.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Yes, your solution is completely correct. $\endgroup$
    – user64687
    Jan 14, 2015 at 15:47

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.