It is a non-rigorous discussion on probability.
I am reading the book 'How long is a piece of string?' by Rob Eastaway and Jeremy Wyndham. In one of the chapters it talks about sports games and why the 'underdogs' manage to win sometimes. One factor that the authors think is the 'knockout' system.
In the knockout system, contestants are divided into groups. For example, A, B, C and D are joining the competition. We divide them into $2$ groups: (A vs B) or (C vs D). In general, we will have $3$ possible groupings. If A and B are the so-called 'big guns' of the competition, then the probability that they will meet in the next-round, which is also the final, is $\frac23$.
Now then the book claims the following:
In fact, with $N$ teams left , the probability of teams staying apart until the final turns out to be $\frac{N}{2N-1}$.
I don't see that coming. For one thing, the situation itself is unclear, like how many knockouts will there be in every groups?
Now suppose I have $8$ contestants, in which $2$ of them are the 'big guns'. In every round, we have only $2$ groups and the worst-performing contestants in each group will be out. Assume that the 'big guns' never lose, then the probability of the 'big guns' meeting in the final rounds should be $\frac47 \times \frac35 \times \frac23 = \frac{8}{35}$.
Am I misunderstanding the knockout system? Why cannot I get the same answer as the book? Thanks in advance.