# Prove for continous function $f$, $\int_0^1 xf (x) dx = \int_c^1 f (x) dx$

If f is continuous real valued function on $[0,1]$ show that there exist a point $c\in (0,1)$ such that $\int_0^1xf(x)dx = \int_c^1 f(x)dx$

I tried to apply mean value theorem for integrals on both sides separately to see if come equal but that didn't work.

Define $F(t) := \int_t^1 f(x)\, dx$. Then $\int_0^1 xf(x)\, dx = \int_0^1 F(x)\, dx$ by integration by parts:
$$\int_0^1 xf(x)\, dx = \int_0^1 x(-F'(x))\, dx = -F(1) + \int_0^1 F(x)\, dx = \int_0^1 F(x)\, dx.$$
By the mean value theorem for integrals, there is a point $c$ in $(0,1)$ such that $\int_0^1 F(x)\, dt = F(c)$, i.e., $\int_0^1 xf(x)\, dx = \int_c^1 f(x)\, dx$.
• Rest is fine but I find problem when I solve by parts $\int_0^1 xf (x)$ it becomes messy. – ketan Jan 12 '15 at 8:02