Consider the following (non-convex) optimization problem on the real variables $\lambda_\ell^\pm$ with $\ell=1,\ldots,n$
\begin{align} \mbox{maximize}&\quad \lambda_{1}^+-\lambda_{1}^--2\sum_{\ell= 2}^n\sqrt{\lambda_\ell^+\lambda_\ell^-}\nonumber\\ \mbox{subject to}&\quad\sum_{\ell=1}^{n}{({\lambda_\ell^+}+{\lambda_\ell^-})}=1\quad\mbox{and}\quad\quad \lambda_\ell^+\geq\lambda_\ell^-\geq 0\quad \forall \ell=1,\ldots,n\,. \end{align}
It is clear that, without loss of generality, we can set $\lambda_{2,\ldots,n}^-=0$ and solve the resulting LP for $\lambda_1^-$ and $\lambda_\ell^+$.
If, however, we further constrain this problem with the quadratic inequality constraint
\begin{equation} \sum_{\ell=1}^{n}{[({\lambda_\ell^+})^2+({\lambda_\ell^-})^2]}\leq P \end{equation} for some fixed $P\in [1/(n+1),1]$, can we still assume that there is an optimal solution with $\lambda_{2,\ldots,n}^-=0$?