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Let $A=k[x,y]$ where $k$ is an algebraically closed field and let $M=A/(xy)$ be an $A$-module. I am supposed to calculate $\text{Supp}(M)= \{ P \in \text{Spec}(A) : M_p \not= 0 \}$ where $M_p = S^{-1}M, S=A \setminus P$. I am not sure about this, but I am thinking if $M_p \not= 0$ then it exist an $a/b \not= 0/1$, that is, it doesnt exist a $u \in k[x,y] \setminus P$ with $ua=0$ but this is only true if $( (x) \cup (y) \cup (xy)) \subset P$, is this correct?

Conversely, if $( (x) \cup (y) \cup (xy)) \subset P$ then of course $M_p ≠ 0$, to see this, take any $a/b \in M_p$ with $a ≠ 0 + (xy)$ then $a/b ≠ 0/1$, because if $a/b=0/1$ then it must exist a $u \in k[x,y] \setminus P$ with $ua=0$ but then $ua$ must contain the product $xy$ but this is only true if $a$ contains $xy$ which is not the case since $a ≠ 0+ (xy)$.

In summary $\text{Supp}(M)= \{ P \in \text{Spec}(A) : ( (x) \cup (y) \cup (xy)) \subset P \}$. I feel I am missing something, is this correct?

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  • $\begingroup$ @user26857 Isnt this only true if $M$ is generated by one element? If not, how can I see this? $\endgroup$
    – user117449
    Commented Jan 2, 2015 at 16:36
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    $\begingroup$ @Sodan: $M$ is generated by one element — it's a quotient of $A$. $\endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Commented Jan 2, 2015 at 16:46

1 Answer 1

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It is almost correct, except for taking into account that $(xy) \subset (x)$, and likewise $(xy) \subset (y)$. Also $P$ contains $(xy)$ if and only if $P$ contains $(x)$ or $P$ contains $(y)$ since $P$ is a prime ideal, so that $(x) \cup (y) \cup (xy)=(x) \cup (y)$, and $$\DeclareMathOperator\supp{Supp} \DeclareMathOperator\spec{Spec}\supp(M)=\Bigl\{ P \in \spec(A)\: :\: P \supset (x)\enspace \text{or}\enspace P\supset (y)\Bigr\}.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you, in calculating the Supp of $M$ do you think this is a valid solution? I feel uncertain about it, I dont know why. $\endgroup$
    – user117449
    Commented Jan 2, 2015 at 17:09
  • $\begingroup$ You can greatly simplify your solution using the fact that $M$ is a quotient of $A$: this allows you to prove that $M_P\neq 0$ by considering $\dfrac{\bar 1}{1}$ instead of a generic element $\dfrac{\bar a}{b}$. $\endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Commented Jan 2, 2015 at 18:28

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