In a coursetext of mine there is a theorem that says: when $f(x)$ is locally integrable ($f(x)\in\text{L}^1_{\text{loc}}(\mathbb{R}^d$), $f(x)\geq0 \,\forall x$ and $\int f(x) dx=1$ then it follows that $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} n^df(nx)=\delta(x)$.
This I get, but there is an exercise which asks us to prove that in the one-dimensional case the $f(x)\geq 0$ can be dropped.
I should define the function $$F_n(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x f_n(x) dx$$ ($f_n(x)=nf(nx)$). I am able to prove that $F_n(x)$ converges to the Heaviside function $H$ pointwise. Now I wish to use Lesbesgues Dominated Convergence theorem to prove that $F_n\rightarrow H$, but in order to do this I first have to proof that $\forall n\, \forall x \,|F_n(x)|<c$, where $c$ is some constant.
Now $$\left|\int_{-\infty}^x f_n(t) dt\right|=\left|\int_{-\infty}^{nx} f(t) dt\right|$$ So I have to prove that $\left|\int_{-\infty}^{s} f(t) dt\right|$ is smaller then some constant for all $s$, but I can't seem to find any reason why that should be. Could anyone offer me some help, be gentle, I'm only an engineer.