There is this proof for the integral of convolution between two functions:
$$\begin{align}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} (f*g)(x)dx&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\left [ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x-\xi)g(\xi)d\xi \right ] dx \\&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}g(\xi)\left [ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x-\xi)dx \right ] d\xi \\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}g(\xi)\left [ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(\eta)d\eta \right ] d\xi\\&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}g(\xi) d\xi \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(\eta)d\eta\end{align}$$
What confuses me is the way author has easily changed the order of terms under integral sign. I'll appreciate any explanation.