While reading Terence Tao's book on Analysis I had some questions regarding the implication of the Peano Axioms.
After writing the following four axioms (which I will write without changing their original numbering),
Axiom 2.1
$0$ is a natural number.
Axiom 2.2
If $n$ is a natural number then $n{+\!+}$ is also a natural number. (Here $n{+\!+}$ denotes the successor of $n$ and previously in the book the notational implication has been bijected to the familiar $1, 2\ldots$).
Axiom 2.3
$0$ is not the successor of natural number; i.e. we have $n{+\!+}\neq 0$ for every natural number $n$.
Axiom 2.4
Different natural numbers must have different successors; i.e., if $n, m$ are natural numbers and $n\neq m$, then $n{+\!+}\neq m{+\!+}$.
Now let me quote the portion of the text from which my question arises,
"As one can see from this proposition, it now looks like we can keep all of the natural numbers distinct from each other. There is however still one more problem: while the axioms (particularly Axioms $2.1$ and $2.2$) allow us to confirm that $0,1,2,3,\ldots$ are distinct elements of $\mathbb{N}$, there is the problem that there may be other "$\color{red}{\text{rogue}}$" elements in our number system which are not of this form:...
...What we want is some axiom which says that the only numbers in $\mathbb{N}$ are those which can be obtained from $0$ and the increment operation - in order to exclude elements such as $0.5$. But it is difficult to quantify what we mean by "can be obtained from" without already using the natural numbers, which we are trying to define. Fortunately, there is an ingenious solution to try to capture this fact:
Axiom 2.5
Let $P(n)$ be any property pertaining to a natural number $n$. Suppose that $P(0)$ is true, and suppose that whenever $P(n)$ is true, $P(n{+\!+})$ is also true. Then $P(n)$ is true for every natural number $n$.
The informal intuition behind this axiom is the following. Suppose $P(n)$ is such that $P(0)$ is true, and such that whenever $P(n)$ is true, then $P(n{+\!+})$ is true. Then since $P(0)$ is true, $P(0{+\!+}) = P(1)$ is true. Since $P(1)$ is true, $P(1{+\!+}) = P(2)$ is true. Repeating this indefinitely, we see that $P(0), P(1), P(2), P(3),$ etc. are all true- however this line of reasoning will never let us conclude that $P(0.5)$, for instance, is true. $\color{blue}{\text{Thus Axiom 2.5 should not hold for number systems which contain}}$ "$\color{blue}{\text {unnecessary}}$"$\color{blue}{\text {elements such as $0.5$.}}$
My questions are precisely regarding the colored statements.
How can we assume the existence of "$\color{red}{\text{rogue}}$" elements in our number system? To be precise, how can one who doesn't know anything about the number system and the numbers try to convince himself of the existence of such elements?
Which $P(n)$ only holds for the natural numbers? In other words, how the addition of the fifth axiom resolves the problem of the rogue elements?
Added:-
After reading the various answers below, I think that I should elaborate why the answers below doesn't completely satisfy me.
What KSmarts said in response to my first question seems circular to me. To quote from his answer,
Suppose that in addition to the expected natural numbers $0,1,2,$ etc $\color{green}{\color{green}{\text{there are numbers}}\ a,b, \color{green}{\text{and}}\ c \ \color{green}{\text{so that}}\ a{+\!+}=b, b{+\!+}=c,\ \color{green}{\text{and}}\ c{+\!+}=a}$. This does not contradict any of the first four axioms, so it is a valid construction under those axioms. However, it does not correspond to what we expect of the natural numbers, so there is another axiom to restrict this construction.
The colored portion is the reason for which I think that the answer is circular. Precisely my question is that how do we convince someone the existence of those $a,b,c$'s who doesn't know anything about the numbers?
Hurkyl raised a good point which tries to resolve the above question,
For your first question, it's not that we assume that rogue elements exist, it's that we cannot assume they do not exist. If we wish that they do not exist, we must choose a definition that allows us to prove it.
"...it's that we cannot assume they do not exist." Exactly! But in my view we can choose a definition to "prove" that such rogue elements don't $\color{darkviolet}{\text{only when}}$ we know the properties of those elements. For then we can "construct" the definition in a way which excludes the possibility of such rogue elements.
So,
How can we know the properties that only belongs to the rogue elements, unless we have a proper idea of the nature of those rogue elements?
And it's precisely in the light of this question that my second question naturally arises. If we know the properties of the rogue elements, then we can define the property $P$ to be the "complement" of the properties which satisfy question my last question.