I have a maths assignment due for college based on the McLaurin series and don't understand how to do it. I need to use a McLaurin series expansion to evaluate a function. The function is the solution this differential equation: $$ \frac{d^2f}{dx^2} + 5\frac{df}{dx} + 4f = 0, $$ with $df/dx(0) = 0$ and $f(0) = 2$ Can you please help me make a start with this and I will get back to you with any progress I make. Thank you.
1 Answer
Method 1: $$f(x)=f(0)+\frac{f'(0)}{1!}x+\frac{f''(0)}{2!}x^2+\frac{f^{(3)}(0)}{3!}x^3+\cdots$$
You have: $$f(0)=2$$ $$f'(0)=0$$
Replacing that in your differential equation:
$$ f''(0) + 5f'(0) + 4f(0) = 0 $$ $$ f''(0)+5\cdot 0 +4\cdot 2=0 $$
$$ f''(0)=-8 $$
If you take the derivative of your differential equation:
$$ \frac{d^3f}{dx^3} + 5\frac{df^2}{dx^2} + 4\frac{df}{dx} = 0, $$
And evaluating in $0$:
$$ \frac{d^3f}{dx^3}(0) + 5f''(0) + 4f'(0) = 0, $$ $$ \frac{d^3f}{dx^3}(0)=40 $$
In general you can derivate $n$ times to obtain:
$$f^{(n+2)}+5f^{(n+1)}+4f^{(n)}=0$$
Which can be evaluated in $0$ to obtain a relationship between the derivatives at $x=0$:
$$f^{(n+2)}(0)+5f^{(n+1)}(0)+4f^{(n)}(0)=0$$
Method 2:
Call
$$a_n=f^{(n)}(0)$$
$$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{n!} x^{n}$$ $$f'(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{(n-1)!} x^{n-1}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n+1}}{n!} x^{n}$$ $$f''(x)=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{(n-2)!} x^{n-2}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n+2}}{n!} x^{n}$$
Replacing in the differential equation:
$$ \frac{d^2f}{dx^2} + 5\frac{df}{dx} + 4f = 0, $$ $$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (a_{n+2}+5a_{n+1}+4a_{n}) x^n=0 $$
Therefore you have the recurrence relation:
$$a_{n+2}+5a_{n+1}+4a_{n}=0$$ $$a_{0}=2$$ $$a_{1}=0$$
Note: if you are not able to solve the relationship between the coefficients just show a few terms. The recurrence solution is (using wolfram alpha I'm not an expert on this):
$$f^{(n)}(0) = -\frac{2}{3} (-1)^n (4^n-4)$$
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$\begingroup$ Using Method 1 would I be correct in saying that the next step would be f′′′′(0) + 5f′′′(0) + 4f′′(0) = 0 giving f′′′′(0) + 5.40 + 4.-8 = 0 which gives f′′′′(0) = -168 ? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2014 at 5:53
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$\begingroup$ Thanks so much for your help rlartiga, much appreciated. Does the process just continue in this fashion and if so, how far do I need to keep going? Also, could you give an example of what happens if you put in a particular value for the argument x? Do you just place it in each part of the series formula for x, x^2 and so on? And then multiply it by the derivative value/factorial value? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2014 at 19:29
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$\begingroup$ yes, you just replace. The ideal is solve the recurrence relation (i.e. find the pattern of the coefficients) $\endgroup$– rlartigaCommented Dec 20, 2014 at 19:32
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$\begingroup$ One last thing, is f′(0) always equal to 0 and f(0) always equal to 2 and what's their relevance in the expansion i.e. why choose those 2 values, can different values be used? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2014 at 19:40