We had in our functional analysis course a proof for the Hahn-Banach theorem on a separable Banach space which doesn't need, according to our professsor, the axiom of choice. Yesterday I read the proof again and I am not sure if we really don't need the AC.
The proof starts with:
"Let $\{ x_1, x_2, \dots \}$ be a countable dense set."
And this is exactly the point I am confused about. The definition of a separable space just gives us the existence of countable dense sets but not a concrete one. Don't we need, in general, the axiom of choice for choosing a concrete set?