I'm having difficulty understanding the following inequality as presented in Kenneth A Ross's Elementary Analysis: The Theory of Calculus $(2^{nd} Edition)$.
For a sequence $(s_n) \in \mathbb R$, let $v_N$ = $\mathrm{sup}\{s_n : n > N\}$.
$v_N$ = $\mathrm{sup}\{s_n : n > N\}$ $\implies$ $v_1 \ge v_2 \ge v_3 ... $
This makes half-sense to me. For $S = \{s_n : \forall n \in \mathbb N \} $, isn't $\mathrm{sup}\, S$ universal--ie, for $v_N$ = $\mathrm{sup}\{s_n : n > N\}$, shouldn't $v_1 = v_2 = v_3 = ...;$ $\,$?
Or is my line of reasoning incorrect because a general sequence does not necessarily converge to it's supremum? The way I'm trying to think of this is by visualizing a monotonic increasing sequence on a number line (bounded above). Even though you're taking $s_n \, \forall \, \mathrm n > \mathrm N$ , wouldn't you still hit the same supremum? Seeing as the supremum is defined as the least upper bound, how could the least upper bound "change"
Or am I misunderstanding things because I'm not considering how general this statement is?