# Calculate: $\lim_{x \to 0 } = x \cdot \sin(\frac{1}{x})$ [duplicate]

Evaluate the limit: $$\lim_{x \to 0 } = x \cdot \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$$

So far I did:

$$\lim_{x \to 0 } = x\frac{\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)}{\frac{1}{x}\cdot x}$$

$$\lim_{x \to 0 } = 1 \cdot \frac{x}{x}$$

$$\lim_{x \to 0 } = 1$$

Now of course I've looked around and I know I'm wrong, but I couldn't understand why. Can someone please show me how to evaluate this limit correctly? And tell me what I was doing was wrong.

• Hint: use the squeeze theorem. Dec 13, 2014 at 16:35
• How did you go from the first line to the second? ($\lim_{x\rightarrow0}{\sin(1/x)\over 1/x}\ne 1$.) Dec 13, 2014 at 16:37
• No, that's not right. Look closely... Dec 13, 2014 at 16:39
• If the argument of the $\sin$, call it $w$, tends to $0$, then ${\sin w\over w}$ tends to $0$. That's not what you have; the argument in your expression tends to $\pm\infty$, loosely speaking. On the other hand, $\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow\infty}{\sin(1/x)\over 1/x} =1$, since $1/x\rightarrow0$ as $x\rightarrow\infty$. Dec 13, 2014 at 16:43
• Just use the squeeze theorem: $$0\le|x\sin(1/x)|\le |x|\ \buildrel{x\rightarrow0}\over{\longrightarrow}\ 0.$$ Dec 13, 2014 at 16:59

Your proof is incorrect, cause you used incorrect transform, but it has already been stated. I'll describe way to solve it.

$$\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin(\frac{1}{x})}{\frac{1}{x}} \neq 1$$

Hint: Solution is well-known trick. Note $$(\forall x \in \mathbb{R})\left(\sin(x) \in[-1;1]\right)$$ (obvious) and use squeeze theorem to solve it.

Note simple implication.

$$\left(\forall h \in \mathbb{R}\right) \left(\sin h \in [-1;1]\right) \Longrightarrow (\forall x,h \in \mathbb{R})(|x \cdot \sin h| \leq |x|)$$

So, true is inequality $$|x \cdot \sin \frac{1}{x}| \leq |x|$$, therefore (and because module is always non-negative) using squeeze theorem you receive limit.

$$\left(0 \leq\left | \lim_{x \to 0} x\cdot \sin \frac{1}{x} \right | \leq \lim_{x \to 0} \left| x \right| = 0 \right)\Longrightarrow \lim_{x \to 0}x \cdot \sin(x) = 0$$

You cant do this because

$$\sin(1/x)$$ isnt defined. So you cant use the fact that

$$\lim_{x\to 0} \sin(\alpha)/\alpha = 1$$

• The function $f(x) = \sin(1/x)$ is certainly defined; what exactly do you mean? Dec 13, 2014 at 17:12
• At $x=0$ it isnt. Dec 13, 2014 at 17:13
• Oh, ok. But more important than $f(x)$ not being defined at $x=0$, the limit to zero is also not defined. I see what you mean. Dec 13, 2014 at 17:14