I have looked around at the questions about Dedekind cuts and still have some questions.
For example,
1) Why is $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r^2 < 2 \}$ not a Dedekind cut and yet $\big( 0^{\ast}:=\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r < 0\} \big) \cup \{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r \geq 0 \textrm{ and } r^2 < 2 \}$ is a Dedekind cut (for representing $\sqrt{2}$)?
I can verify the union is a Dedekind cut for $\sqrt{2}$ by drawing an open interval, $(-\infty,0)$, union-ed with the open interval $[0,\sqrt{2})$ to produce what I think is the definition of a Dedekind cut "by the lower half", $(-\infty,\sqrt{2})$.
The first part - I use the definition:
(a) Cut $A \neq \varnothing$ and $A \neq \mathbb{Q}$.
(b) If $r \in A$ and $s \in \mathbb{Q}$ and $s < r$, then $s \in A$.
(c) A contains no largest rational
Doesn't the first "cut" satisfy all these? Because can't I just write it as $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r < \sqrt{2} \}$? Then (a) is satisfied, (b) is satisfied, and (c) is true because you can get arbitrarily close to $\sqrt{2}$.
It seems that in both $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r^2 < 2 \}$ and $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r^3 < 2\}$, the suprema of each are irrational....?
2) For $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r^3 < 2 \}$ is a Dedekind cut - can't I just say that it is because it is the set $\{r \in \mathbb{Q}: r < 2^{1/3}\}$ and $r^3 - 2 = 0$ can only have rational roots that are multiples of $\frac{r\,a_0}{s\,a_n}: \pm 1, \pm 2$?
The separation is on an irrational number and that this cut represents an irrational number?
3) Is it fair to say that a rational is represented by the cut, $\{(-\infty,r),[r,+\infty)\}$; and an irrational is represented by the cut, $\{(-\infty,i),(i,+\infty)\}$?
Thank you all for the help!