# Explain proof that any positive definite matrix is invertible

If an $n \times n$ symmetric A is positive definite, then all of its eigenvalues are positive, so $0$ is not an eigenvalue of $A$. Therefore, the system of equations $A\mathbf{x}=\mathbf{0}$ has no non-trivial solution, and so A is invertible.

I don't get how knowing that $0$ is not an eigenvalue of $A$ enables us to conclude that $A\mathbf{x}=\mathbf{0}$ has the trivial solution only. In other words, how do we exclude the possibility that for all $\mathbf{x}$ that is not an eigenvector of $A$, $A\mathbf{x}=\mathbf{0}$ will not have a non-trivial solution?

## 4 Answers

Note that if $Ax=0=0\cdot x$ for some $x\ne 0$ then by definition of eigenvalues, $x$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $\lambda = 0$, contradicting that $0$ is not an eigenvalue of $A$. $$Ax=\lambda x$$

• Note that if the matrix is only PSD, then it may have a 0 eigenvalue, and therefore, it may still be non-invertible (non-trivial nullspace) Jan 21, 2021 at 21:53

$$\det A = \prod_{j=1}^n \lambda_j \implies \det A = 0 \Leftrightarrow \exists\ i \in \{1,2,\ldots, n\}:\lambda_i = 0$$

In other words, the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues, and can only be zero if at least one eigenvalue is zero.

Because if $$Ax=0$$ for some nonzero $$x$$, then $$x$$ can be said to be in the null space of $$A, N(A)$$, hence it is non-invertible. We can also see that $$Ax=\lambda x$$ by definition of eigenvalue/vector so $$0$$ would be an eigenvalue.

Therefore by the chain of equivalences, $$λ=0\implies A$$ Is non-invertible.

• Yes. You have that $0$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ $\iff$ $A$ is not invertible $\iff$ there exists nonzero $x$ with $Ax=0$. Sep 11, 2019 at 11:57

Note that $$A^TA$$ is symmetric and positive definite and we have $$(\det A)^2=\det A\det A^T= \det (A^TA)\neq 0$$

this reduces the question to the symmetric case.

Now if A is symmetric. Assume that is $$0$$ is an eigenvalue, then we have $$Ax=0$$ with $$x\neq 0$$. By positive definite, we get $$0=(Ax,x)>0$$ which is impossible. So $$x=0$$ is the only solution to $$Ax=0$$.

NB: note that by definition, an eigenvector is never zero