A tarot deck consists of 78 cards. There are 14 cards in each of 4 suits (comprising the usual 13 ranks and a face card called a knight), and there are 21 picture cards and a joker. The picture cards and the joker do not belong to any suit.
A tarot hand consists of 18 cards drawn at random from the deck. What is the probability that a tarot hand has a void, meaning that at least one suit is not present among the 18 cards? Once you've computed the answer in terms of binomial coefficients, use a calculator or computer to determine the answer to the nearest tenth of a percent, and enter that as your answer.
I know I have to use PIE based on where they say "at least one suit", but how would I set it up in terms of PIE?