Proving uniqueness of $e$ Let's define $e$ as the number $a$ such that $\frac {d}{dx} a^x = a^x$.  I'm trying to prove that this $a$ has to be $e$.  I don't see any way of proceeding from here except by the limit definition (I'm not assuming I know what the $\ln$ function is, or else there'd be a much easier definition of $e$ to be had).
$$\frac {d}{dx} a^x=\lim_{h\to 0} \frac {a^{x+h}-a^x}{h}=\lim_{h\to 0} a^x\frac{a^h-1}{h}=a^x\left(\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{a^h-1}{h}\right)$$
So clearly $e$ must be the number that makes that limit on the far right equal to $1$.  I'm not sure how to evaluate this. Using L'Hopital's rule, I just get $\lim_{h\to 0} \frac {d}{dh} a^h$, which doesn't particularly help.
So my question:

How can I prove that there is a unique number such that $\lim_{h\to 0} \frac {a^h-1}{h}=1$?

 A: Unfortunately, as you note, the limit
$$\lim_{h\rightarrow0}\frac{a^h-1}h$$
is not easily worked with (since it equals $\log(a)$). We can, however, gleam two bits of information from it. Firstly, if we define the function
$$f(a)=\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{a^h-1}h$$
we can show that it is monotonic increasing; in particular, notice that if $b>a$ then, from the continuity of $x\mapsto a^x$ we can find some $k>1$ such that $a^{k}=b$. Thus, we could write
$$f(b)=\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{a^{kh}-1}{h}$$
or if we substitute $h'=kh$, we get
$$f(b)=\lim_{h'\rightarrow 0}k\frac{a^{h'}-1}{h'}=kf(a)>f(a).$$
Of course, when you substitute things in, you quickly find that $f=\log$ and $k=\log_a(b)$, but we never used these facts and are, indeed, proving all this from scratch.
We could also derive a formula for $e$ knowing that
$$\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{e^h-1}h=1$$
In particular, choose $h=\frac{1}n$ for integer $n$ (which is justified since $\frac{e^h-1}h$ is continuous for $h\neq 0$. Then we have
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}n(\sqrt[n]e-1)=1$$
Now, for a fixed $n$ define $e_n$ to be the value such that the above equality (ignoring the limit) holds. That is
$$n(\sqrt[n]{e_n}-1)=1$$
and solving for $e_n$ gives
$$e_n=\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n.$$
It should be fairly clear that $e=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}e_n$ and this fact could be made formal without too much effort - but intuitively, it is clear, since $e_n$ is the solution for each case approaching the limit, the limit thereof is the solution for the limiting case.
A: First, note that $\frac {d}{dx} 0^x = 0^x$, so you really want to know that there is a unique positive real number $a$ for which $\frac {d}{dx} a^x = a^x$.
Suppose that $\frac{d}{dx}a^x=a^x$ and $\frac{d}{dx}b^x=b^x$, with $a$ and $b$ both positive. Then by the quotient rule,
$$\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^x=\frac{d}{dx}\frac{a^x}{b^x}=\frac{b^xa^x-a^xb^x}{b^{2x}}=0.$$ Then $\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^x$ is a constant, which implies that $\frac{a}{b}$ is $1$ or $0$. Since $a>0$, $\frac{a}{b}$ must be $1$, so $a=b$. 
