This is from a homework question 13.22 part (c) from "Mathematical Methods for Physic and Engineering" by Riley et. al on p. 464
I don't understand why the heaviside function is in the solution to this problem. I would be very grateful if someone could point me in the right direction.
The question states:
Find the function y(t) whose Laplace transforms is the following: $$e^{-(\gamma+s)}/[(s+\gamma)^2+b^2]$$
The correct solution uses the convolution formula for a Laplace transform to get:
$$ \begin{align} f(t) &= \frac{e^{-\gamma t_0}}{b} \int_0^{t} e^{-\gamma u}\sin(bu)H(u)\delta(t-u-t_0) \, du \\&= \frac{e^{-\gamma t_0}}{b} e^{-\gamma (t-t_0)} \sin[b(t-t_0)]H(t-t_0) \\ &= \frac{1}{b} e^{-\gamma t} sin[b(t-t_0)] H(t-t_0)\end{align}$$
where $\delta$ is the Dirac delta function and $H$ is the heavyside function.
To approach this problem I took $\bar g(s) = e^{-s t_0}$ and $\bar f(s) = \frac{b}{(s^2 + \gamma)^2 + b^2}$ as the Laplace transforms. From there I looked up the Laplace transforms in a table provided by the book and got $g(t) = \delta (t-t_0)$ and $f(t) = e^{-\gamma t} \sin(bt)$. I then applied the convolution theorem in the following way: $$\begin{align} \mathcal{L}^{-1} \left(\tfrac{1}{b} e^{-\gamma t_0 } \bar f(s) \bar g(s) \right) &= \frac{1}{b} e^{-\gamma t_0} \int_0^t e^{-\gamma u} \sin(bu) \delta(t-u-t_0) \, du \\ &= \frac{1}{b} e^{-\gamma t} \sin(b(t-t_0))\end{align}$$
where $\mathcal{L}$ is the Laplace transform. As you can see, my solution was similar to the correct solution, but has no heaviside function. I still can't figure out where the heaviside function comes from! Thank you in advance for your help.