Suppose I have $n$ bernoulli (values zero or one), possibly dependent and nonidentically distributed, random variables (like the generalized binomial model), where a law of large numbers holds. Let $S_n = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ and
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{S_n-ES_n}{n}=0\text{ a.s.}$$
My question is, does this imply a function like $$F(n)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=0}^{\lfloor ES_n \rfloor}(ES_n-i)\Pr(S_n=i)+\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=\lfloor ES_n \rfloor+1}^n(i-ES_n)\Pr(S_n=i) $$ also converges to zero almost surely?
My work: $$nF(n) = \Pr(S_n\leq ES_n)(ES_n - E(S_n \mid S_n\leq ES_n)) + (1-\Pr(S_n \leq ES_n))(E(S_n\mid S_n >ES_n )-ES_n) $$
Replacing $\Pr(S_n\leq ES_n)$ with $p_n$,
$$nF(n) = 2p_n ES_n - ES_n - p_nE(S_n \mid S_n\leq ES_n) + (1-p_n)E(S_n \mid S_n> ES_n) $$
$$nF(n) = 2p_n ES_n - 2p_nE(S_n \mid S_n\leq ES_n).$$
Here, I'm getting stuck. I think I can use the tower property to show $EF(n)=0$, but I'd like to show $F(n)\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$ a.s.