I am actually quite confused. I have done an exercise that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is a completion of $\mathbb{Z}$ w.r.t. the $p$-adic norm. Then again I got to know after reading somewhere that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is also a completion of $\mathbb{Z}_{(p)}$. So is the completion of a valuation ring of field $K$ related to the valuation ring of the completion of $K$?
Another question I wanted to ask. Whether any complete field (where Cauchy sequences converge) is always a completion over another non complete field?