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Let $D\in \mathbb{C}$ be open, and let $f,f_1,f_2,...:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ be functions.

We say the sequence $\{f_n\}$ is compactly convergent to $f$ (equivalent to locally uniformly convergent), if for each compact set $K\subset D$, the sequence $\{f_{n\restriction{K}}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ converges to $f_{\restriction{K}}$ uniformly on $K$

Let $f_n(z)=\prod_{i=1}^n(1+\frac {z}{i^2})$, with $z\in \mathbb{C}$

Show $f_n(z)$ converges compactly on $\mathbb{C}$.

Here is my thought process.

I know that $\prod_i^{\infty}(1+\frac {z}{i^2})$ converges if and only if $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}log(1+\frac {z}{i^2})$ converges.

So showing $f_n(z)$ is compactly convergent on $\mathbb{C}$, amounts to showing for all $\epsilon>0$ there exists a sequence $a_n>0$, such that $|log(1+\frac {z}{n^2})|\leq a_n$ and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n<\infty$ in $B_{\epsilon}[z]$.

If I can show that, then that implies $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}(1+\frac {z}{i^2})$ converges on compact $B_{\epsilon}[z]$ and thus $\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(1+\frac {z^2}{i^2})$ converges on compact $B_{\epsilon}[z]$

Therefore $f_n(z)$ converges compactly on $\mathbb{C}$ correct?

Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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A rigorous argument is as follows: let log denote the principle branch of logarithm. Let $g(z)=\frac {log(1+z)} z$ for $0<|z|<1$ and $1$ for $z=0$. Then $g$ is a continuous function on $\{z:|z| \leq \frac 1 2\}$. Hence it is bounded. Let $|g(z)| \leq M$ for $|z| \leq \frac 1 2$. Now, for $n$ sufficiently large $|\frac z {n^{2}}|\leq \frac 1 2$ for all $z$ in our compact set. This gives uniform convergence of $\sum log(1+\frac z {n^{2}})$ because $|log(1+\frac z {n^{2}})| \leq M|\frac z {n^{2}}|$ and $|z|$ is bounded on the compact set. Uniform convergence of this series implies uniform convergence of the infinite product.

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  • $\begingroup$ So you showed that the infinite product is uniformly convergent on the compact ball of radius 1/2 correct? So to say that $f_n(z)$ is compactly convergent, I can just note that this argument holds for any ball of any radius right? In which compact convergence follows? $\endgroup$ Nov 7, 2018 at 12:15
  • $\begingroup$ You have misunderstood the argument. For $z$ in any compact set $\frac z {n^{2}}$ lies in the ball of radius $1/2$ and I used properties of $g$ on that disc. I have proved uniform convergence on any compact set. $\endgroup$ Nov 7, 2018 at 12:30
  • $\begingroup$ Oh my apologies, I just noticed. That makes perfect sense now, thanks! $\endgroup$ Nov 7, 2018 at 12:32

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