7
$\begingroup$

Show that if $n$, $a$, $b$, and $c$ are positive integers with $\gcd(a, b) = 1$ and $ab = c^n$, then there are positive integers $d$, and $e$ such that $a = d^n$ and $b = e^n$.

I know that (by Bezout) $\gcd\left(a,b\right) = 1$ implies $ax + by = 1$ for some integers $x$ and $y$, and also that $\gcd\left(a^n,b^n\right) = 1$, but this does not help me.

$\endgroup$
6
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ Have you considered the prime factorizations of $a$, $b$, and $c$? $\endgroup$
    – Alf
    Feb 11, 2011 at 15:03
  • $\begingroup$ @kira: Please ask questions, don't give orders. Also: please make your titles informative, not sentence fragments. $\endgroup$ Feb 11, 2011 at 16:21
  • $\begingroup$ obvious assuming the fundamental theorem of arithmetic $\endgroup$
    – yoyo
    Feb 11, 2011 at 19:00
  • $\begingroup$ @kira: The title describes your problem exactly; why did you change it back to not having mark-up and to the old phrasing? $\endgroup$ Feb 11, 2011 at 19:46
  • $\begingroup$ Because of this:@kira: Please ask questions, don't give orders. Also: please make your titles informative, not sentence fragments. – Arturo Magidin 3 hours ago $\endgroup$
    – kira
    Feb 11, 2011 at 20:16

1 Answer 1

7
$\begingroup$

Of course it is easy using existence and uniqueness of prime factorizations. Below is a more general proof using gcd's (or ideals) that has the benefit of giving an explicit closed form.

$ab=c^n \overset{\rm Lemma}\Rightarrow c=(a,c)(b,c) \,\Rightarrow\, ab = (a,c)^n(b,c)^n\Rightarrow \dfrac{a}{(b,c)^n}\! = \dfrac{(a,c)^n}b$ $\,\Rightarrow\begin{align} a &= (a,c)^n\\ b &= (b,c)^n\end{align}$

where the last inference uses Unique Fractionization [both fractions are irreducible by $(a,b)\!=\!1$]

Lemma $\ \ \color{#c00}{c\mid ab},\,\ \color{#0a0}{(a,b,c)=1}\ \Rightarrow \ c = (a,c)(b,c)\ [=\, (ab,c\color{#0a0}{(a,b,c)}) = (\color{#c00}{ab,c}) = c\,],\,$ where the braced proof uses gcd "polynomial" arithmetic, i.e. associative, commutative, distributive laws.

Alternatively $\ (a,c)^n\! \overset{\rm\color{#C00}F}= (a^n,c^n) = (a^n,ab) = a(a^n,b) = a$ and $\,(b,c)^n = b\,$ by symmetry, where we have invoked $\rm\color{#c00}F$ = GCD Binomial Theorem (Freshman's Dream).

As $ $ Weil remarks, $ $ this result can be viewed as the essence of Fermat's method of infinite descent. $ $ It generalizes to rings of algebraic integers but depends upon much deeper results in this more general context, viz. the finiteness of the class number and Dirichlet's unit theorem.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ See here for a comparison of the alternative proof (case $\,n = 2$) to the common Bezout-based proofs. $\endgroup$ Oct 29, 2020 at 6:47

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .