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If somebody comes up with a better title, then please feel free to tell me.

Let $(\Omega,\mathcal F,\mu)$ be a measure space. Let $(a\,..b)\subseteq \mathbb R$ and $f : (a\,..b) \times \Omega \to \mathbb R$ be such that, $f(x,\_)$ (*) is $\mu$-integrable for all $x$ and $f(\_,\omega)$ is continuous for all $\omega$. Let $g : \Omega \to \mathbb R$ be $\mu$-integrable such that $|f(x,\_)| \leq g$ for all $x\in \Omega$.

Then one can show that $x\mapsto F(x):=\int f(x,\_) d\mu$ is continuous.

This was an exercise with a hint: "Apply dominated convergence theorem for a suitable sequence of functions."

My question is: How do I prove this? I'm completely stuck since I have no idea what kind of sequence I'm supposed to look at.


(*) The symbol $\_$ is a placeholder for an argument, e.g. $f(x,\_)$ is a function $\Omega \to \mathbb R$.

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Edit: changed hint to full answer (I'm assuming that $g$ is supposed to be $\mu$-integrable)

We want to show that $x \mapsto F(x)$ is a sequentially continuous map on $(a,b)$. Let $x_n \to x$ in $(a,b)$, define \begin{align} f_n : ~&\Omega \to \mathbb{R} \\ & \omega \mapsto f(x_n, \omega) \end{align} As $f(\cdot,\omega)$ is continuous for every $\omega \in \Omega$, we have $f(x_n,\omega) \to f(x,\omega)$ for every $\omega \in \Omega$, therefore $f_n$ converges pointwise to $f(x,\cdot)$. As $|f_n(\omega)| = |f(x_n,\omega)| \leq g(\omega)$, we may apply the dominated convergence theorem to the sequence $f_n$ on $L^1(\mu)$ to conclude

$$\lim_{n\to \infty} F(x_n) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \int_{\Omega}f_n ~ d\mu = \int_{\Omega} \lim_{n\to\infty} f_{n}~ d\mu = \int_{\Omega}f(x,\cdot)~d\mu = F(x)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ @StefanPerko well, you could have just told me that you'd prefer a full answer. $\endgroup$
    – user159517
    Feb 16, 2017 at 19:07
  • $\begingroup$ @StefanPerko no reason to apologize, I had hoped that my hint would be instructive for you, if it wasn't that is a misjudgment on my part. $\endgroup$
    – user159517
    Feb 16, 2017 at 19:15
  • $\begingroup$ @StefanPerko I edited my hint into an answer, I just realized that you did not explicitly state that $g$ is supposed to be $\mu$-integrable, did you forget to mention that assumption or was the question asked without it? $\endgroup$
    – user159517
    Feb 16, 2017 at 19:30
  • $\begingroup$ Oh dear... this was easy. I misinterpreted that hint in the question and your hint completely. I thought I was supposed to choose a sequence $(f_n)$ first and then prove that $F$ is continuous for all $x$. Of course that was my own fault ;) $\endgroup$ Feb 17, 2017 at 20:27

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