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$$\lim\limits_{x\to -\infty} (e^{-x} \cos{x})=\lim\limits_{x\to -\infty} \left(\dfrac{\cos{x}}{e^x}\right)$$

From there, I see that $e^x$ approaches $0$ while $\cos{x}$ oscillates between $-1$ and $1$.

My answer is that the limit does not exist. What is the proper reasoning to explain this? Does the limit oscillate forever, approach $\pm\infty$, etc.?

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  • $\begingroup$ Hint: Set $a_n=-2n\pi$ for $n=0,1,2, \dots $ $\endgroup$
    – Matthew H.
    Sep 26, 2020 at 13:38
  • $\begingroup$ It oscillates forever. It's also not bounded, but it doesn't blow up to either infinity in particular. $\endgroup$
    – Ian
    Sep 26, 2020 at 13:38

3 Answers 3

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Yes your idea is right, to show that in a rigorous way let consider that for $x_n= -2\pi n \to -\infty$ as $n\to \infty$

$$e^{-x_n} \cos{x_n}=e^{-x_n}=\infty$$

and for $x_n= -\pi n$

$$e^{-x_n} \cos{x_n}=-e^{-x_n}=-\infty$$

therefore the limit doesn't exist.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. Why is it sufficient to show that the sequence approaches different infinities to prove the limit does not exist? $\endgroup$
    – aiyan
    Sep 26, 2020 at 13:56
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    $\begingroup$ @aiyan For the uniqueness theorem of the limit, when limit exists it is unique therefore if we find at least $2$ subsequances with different limits the limit doesn't exist. $\endgroup$
    – user
    Sep 26, 2020 at 14:00
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Take $x=\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi k$, where $k$ is integer and $k\rightarrow-\infty$.

We see that $e^{-x}\cos{x}=0.$

In another hand, for $x=\pi k$ and $k\rightarrow-\infty$ we have $|e^{-x}\cos{x}|\rightarrow+\infty$.

Id est, the limit does not exist.

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Apply the ratio test on the sequence $x=-2\pi n$.

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