1,662 reputation
417
bio website
location
age
visits member for 2 years, 1 month
seen 8 hours ago
stats profile views 248

1d
comment space of riemann integrable functions not complete
@Tim Then I should find other examples. But then the above example is just saying that there is a (cauchy) sequence in $\mathcal{R}^1$ such that the pointwise limit is not in $\mathcal{R}^1$?
May
5
comment Is it necessary to consider inversion $\left(z\mapsto\dfrac{1}{z}\right)$ on the extended complex plane
@EricStucky I think that the answer depends on what is the definition of a straight line is. So if the definition does not need to contain the infinity point, you don't need to consider the extended complex plane.
Apr
23
comment integral on $[a,x]$ is zero for all x implies $f=0$ a.e.
@jun Oh I couldn't find it. I should take a look at it.
Apr
23
comment integral on $[a,x]$ is zero for all x implies $f=0$ a.e.
@Easy yes, I'll fix it.
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
Actually I didn't proved the last statement, so there can be some errors.
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
@DaveL.Renfro The solution start in there. $f$ is then riemann integrable, so I can define the partition to be increasing set of discontinuous points $P_k$ and lower and upper (Borel-)simple functions $g_{P_k},G_{P_k}$ and the limits of them $g,G$. And use the fact that for $x\in \cup P_k$, $f$ is continuous at $x$ iff $g(x)=G(x)$.
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
The generalization should be that if all subsets of {discontinuies} are measurable.
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
Or maybe the conclusion is that if $f$ is satisfying such conditions, then $E$ should be measurable?
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
I have a question. Your answer can be generallized to for any $f:E \to \mathbb{R}$ with the set of discontinuities measurable, then $f$ is measurable. But suppose that $E$ is not measurable. Your proof does not use any condition about $E$. Then $E=\cup \{ f<n \}$ should be measurable. What is the problem in my reasoning?
Apr
22
comment A function with countable discontinuities is Borel measurable.
This is so great! Thank you.
Apr
19
comment Transitive set ordered by epsilon
Thanks for great help.
Apr
19
comment Transitive set ordered by epsilon
Thanks, I should study more about ordinals.
Apr
19
comment Transitive set ordered by epsilon
But can you give me any hints for (b), last question? I'm having trouble in them, too.
Apr
19
comment Transitive set ordered by epsilon
I got it. $w=z$ or $z \in w$ both lead to $z \in (x \cap y)\cap(y-x)=\emptyset$.
Apr
18
comment Product sigma algebra of Borel sigma algebra and Power set.
@StefanHansen I edited it.
Apr
18
comment Product sigma algebra of Borel sigma algebra and Power set.
@StefanHansen Well, the sigma finiteness gives the unique product measure. So it may not be uniquely defined.
Mar
16
comment Finitely generated torsion module over a PID.
There was a basis, dual basis to start with, and also used that in finite dimensional vector space, injectivity implies surjectivity.
Mar
10
comment smallest sigma algebra can be obtained by countable operations?
And I guess that David answered "no" to my comment.
Mar
10
comment smallest sigma algebra can be obtained by countable operations?
@ZevChonoles Actually I didn't explained it well. But I'm just thinking of it as follows. From $\mathcal{A}$, let $\mathcal{A}(1)$ be the set obtained by countable unions, countable intersections, complements of $\mathcal{A}$. Similarly, $\mathcal{A}(n+1)$ be defined from $\mathcal{A}(n)$. So we get $\mathcal{A}\subset \mathcal{A}(1) \subset \mathcal{A}(2) \subset \cdots$. Then is it true that $\sigma(\mathcal{A})$=$\mathcal{A}(N)$ for some $N$? Or $\sigma(\mathcal{A})=\cup \mathcal{A(n)}$?
Dec
16
comment To prove divergence of a series.
@Amr As r tends to 1, the sum tends to infinity.