asmeurer

1,737 reputation

724

bio	website	asmeurersympy@wordpress.org
	location	New Mexico
	age
visits	member for	2 years, 9 months
	seen	yesterday
stats	profile views	246

I am a graduate student in mathematics at NMSU. I am the lead developer for the SymPy project.

I will gladly license my code snippets under something more permissive than StackExchange's CC-BY-SA if you want. Consider my work here to be public domain.

	1,737 reputation	bio	website	asmeurersympy@wordpress.org	visits	member for	2 years, 9 months
724 badges		location	New Mexico		seen	yesterday

summary answers questions tags badges favorites bounties reputation activity

228 Actions

suggestions reviews revisions comments badges posts accepts all

2d	awarded	Good Answer
May 12	comment	How to represent the floor function using mathematical notation? With the note that the $\max$ is well-defined because the set is bounded from above (by $x$), and every set of integers bounded above has a maximum element by the well-ordering principle.
May 8	awarded	Caucus
Apr 26	asked	Understanding a proof of Diaconescu's theorem
Apr 26	awarded	Nice Answer
Apr 6	comment	Let $A^{27}=A^{64}=I$, show that $A=I$ This is a great way to understand the Euclidean algorithm!
Mar 27	answered	All natural numbers are equal.
Mar 26	comment	How to show $(1/n!)^{1/n}$ goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity? I guess it's basically the proof from Ofir's answer. The interesting thing about this one is that you can get it easily just from the definition of $\ln{x}$ as $\int_1^x{\frac{dt}{t}}$. My professor showed us it as part of deriving facts about exponentials and trig functions from the base definitions. The 4 comes from the fact that you can easily show that $\ln(4) > 1$ just from the integral definition of $\ln$ and a simple Riemann sum argument.
Mar 26	comment	How to show $(1/n!)^{1/n}$ goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity? Oh, sorry, I remembered wrong. The bound is $(n/4)^n\geq n!$. It comes from taking $\ln$ of both sides (I can put the proof in an answer if you are interested).
Mar 24	comment	How to show $(1/n!)^{1/n}$ goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity? I believe if you replace $e$ with 2 in the inequality, you can prove this without integration.
Mar 22	answered	What was the first bit of mathematics that made you realize that math is beautiful? (For children's book)
Mar 22	comment	What was the first bit of mathematics that made you realize that math is beautiful? (For children's book) Actually, the one that's interesting is the sum of the first $n$ odd integers.
Feb 15	awarded	Necromancer
Feb 12	comment	Unusual 5th grade problem, how to solve it Ah, missed that.
Feb 12	comment	The kernel of a continuous linear operator is a closed subspace? Wouldn't your argument about a convergent subsequence just imply that ker L is not compact, not open?
Feb 12	comment	Unusual 5th grade problem, how to solve it I think it's less than $n!$ if you still consider $\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}$ to be the same.
Feb 12	comment	The kernel of a continuous linear operator is a closed subspace? You don't need to assume that $L \neq 0$. If $L = 0$, then it is automatically continuous, and the kernel, the whole space, is closed.
Jan 19	awarded	Nice Question
Jan 1	awarded	Nice Question
Dec 24	comment	Purely “algebraic” proof of Young's Inequality @AndresCaicedo excellent blog post!