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Kobesky
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Why do authors claim that Euler gave no proof to his “$\sin(\pi x)= \pi x\prod\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\left(1-\frac{x^2}{k^2} \right )$” when…
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Why do authors claim that Euler gave no proof to his “$\sin(\pi x)= \pi x\prod\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\left(1-\frac{x^2}{k^2} \right )$” when…
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