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Mar
20
revised uniformly continuous functions in [0,∞)
Tags edited.
Mar
20
comment uniformly continuous functions in [0,∞)
@t.b. Nice, thank you for providing the missing parts to my answer. : )
Mar
20
answered uniformly continuous functions in [0,∞)
Mar
18
comment A question about an $n$-dimensional subspace of $\mathbb{F}^{S}$.
@spohreis: What is $W$?
Mar
18
revised If coprime elements generate coprime ideals, does it imply for any $a,b\in R$ that $\langle a\rangle+\langle b\rangle=\langle \gcd (a,b)\rangle$?
added 9 characters in body
Mar
18
revised Presumably Simple Laplace Transform Question
Typo in formula corrected.
Mar
18
comment Presumably Simple Laplace Transform Question
@JonaGik Glad I could help : )
Mar
18
answered Presumably Simple Laplace Transform Question
Mar
18
revised Union of the conjugates of a proper subgroup
added 123 characters in body
Mar
18
comment Union of the conjugates of a proper subgroup
@ArturoMagidin Thanks for telling me. I think I'll just delete my answer for now. I might edit it and repost it at some later point.
Mar
18
comment Proving $|K| = p^n \Rightarrow \operatorname{char}(K) = p$
Thank you! That's much nicer than what I wrote!
Mar
17
answered Union of the conjugates of a proper subgroup
Mar
17
revised Proving $|K| = p^n \Rightarrow \operatorname{char}(K) = p$
deleted 9 characters in body
Mar
17
revised Proving $|K| = p^n \Rightarrow \operatorname{char}(K) = p$
added 51 characters in body
Mar
17
revised Proving $|K| = p^n \Rightarrow \operatorname{char}(K) = p$
Typo corrected.
Mar
17
comment The solution set of the equation $|2x - 3| = - (2x - 3)$
@FaMu Yes, it does! : )
Mar
17
comment How to compute $\sum\limits_{k=0}^n (-1)^k{2n-k\choose k}$?
@BrianM.Scott No, I wrote "like the Fibonacci numbers ... but with alternating signs" : )
Mar
17
comment How to compute $\sum\limits_{k=0}^n (-1)^k{2n-k\choose k}$?
It looks like the Fibonacci numbers $$ \sum_{k=0}^{\lfloor \frac{n}{2} \rfloor} {n - k \choose k} = F(n+1)$$ but with alternating signs.
Mar
17
answered How to prove $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} {a^n \over n!}=0$
Mar
17
answered Euler method classification