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On extended leave from the site. I visit occasionally, but irregularly, mostly without logging in. For the time being it is impossible to predict if and when I will find the time to contribute again.


Oct
29
awarded  examples-counterexamples
Oct
28
awarded  Favorite Question
Oct
17
awarded  Nice Answer
Oct
6
awarded  abstract-algebra
Sep
22
awarded  Good Question
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Sep
16
comment differentiable square root of nonnegative smooth function
Here's a related thread and a related MO thread. There are quite a few articles linked in those threads, maybe you can find something in one of them.
Sep
16
comment Balanced but not convex?
That's not balanced: If $x$ is near one of the corners then $-x$ is not in the pentagram. Similar stars work if you take an even number of corners.
Sep
16
comment About an integral over measurable sets
+1 now. Just a small suggestion for your more rigorous argument: I would define $g = f \chi_{F}$ and $g_n = f\chi_{F_n}$ then $|g_n|,|g| \leq |f|$ and $g_n \to g$ pointwise a.e. Thus, dominated convergence gives $$\int_{F} f = \int g = \lim_{n} \int g_n = \lim_{n} \int_{F_n} f$$ which is the desired conclusion.
Sep
16
reviewed Approve suggested edit on what is the solution of this ODE
Sep
16
comment About an integral over measurable sets
Yes, that's absolutely right, Lebesgue dominated convergence leads to the result, as you intend. In my example I tried to point out that you could get $0 = \infty$ in the last displayed equation if you're not careful. The exercise is however much more elementary to solve than by using dominated convergence. Among the first facts one proves in measure theory is: if $F_n$ is a decreasing sequence of sets, $F = \bigcap F_n$ and for some $k$ we have $\mu(F_k) \lt \infty$ then $\mu(F) = \lim\limits_{n\to\infty} \mu(F_n)$. (this follows from $\sigma$-subadditivity of $\mu$)
Sep
16
comment About an integral over measurable sets
Hint: assume $f \geq 0$ and consider the finite measure $d\nu = f d\mu$.
Sep
16
comment Specific homotopy between complex conjugation and the identity.
Maybe I'm being silly, but: wouldn't this yield a homotopy $h$ between the identity and $z \mapsto z^{-1} = \bar z$ on $S^1$ by setting $h(t,z) = \frac{H(t,z)}{\lvert H(t,z)\rvert}$? This couldn't be because $z \mapsto z$ and $z \mapsto z^{-1}$ are distinguished by the degree. Probably such a degree argument can be done directly on $\mathbb{C}^\ast$.
Sep
16
revised About continuous linear functional on the topology generated by linear functionals
edited tags
Sep
16
comment Entire functions representable in power series
+1, although I think appealing to Baire is a bit of an overkill: if $f$ is not a polynomial, none of the $f^{(n)}$ is constant, hence each $F_n$ is countable, so $\bigcup_{n = 0}^\infty F_n \subsetneqq \mathbb{C}$.
Sep
16
comment Entire functions representable in power series
I see. This happens often :) So, does the other thread address your intended question?
Sep
16
comment Entire functions representable in power series
@abby: If $p$ is a polynomial of degree $n$ then $p^{(n+1)}(z) \equiv 0$, so $D_{n+1} = \mathbb{C}$.
Sep
16
revised Taylor series of an entire function which is not a polynomial
added 4 characters in body; edited title
Sep
16
comment Entire functions representable in power series
This question might be (the contrapositive of) what is intended -- ignore the part on Casorati-Weierstrass.