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visits member for 1 year, 4 months
seen Mar 29 at 14:48

Mar
27
accepted Condition for independence of two scalar real valued random variables
Mar
27
asked Condition for independence of two scalar real valued random variables
Mar
24
asked Question regarding a non-standard formulation of the SVD Theorem
Mar
1
asked Efficient implementation of Havling Algorithm (machine learning):
Feb
8
revised How to show Sigma-Additivity of the measure induced by a distribution function?
added 42 characters in body
Feb
8
revised How to show Sigma-Additivity of the measure induced by a distribution function?
added 42 characters in body
Feb
8
comment How to show Sigma-Additivity of the measure induced by a distribution function?
You're right I forgot to mention that it needs to be correct only when the union is indeed in $\mathcal{S}$
Feb
8
revised How to show Sigma-Additivity of the measure induced by a distribution function?
added 48 characters in body; edited title
Feb
8
asked How to show Sigma-Additivity of the measure induced by a distribution function?
Feb
7
asked Is the following measure absolutely continuous relative to Lebesgue measure? (details inside)
Feb
7
comment Proof the product of a convergent in measure sequence with a convergent sequence of real numbers converges in measure
I seem to have completely overlooked the added assumption that the space is finite... Well that definitely resolves it. Thanks!
Feb
7
asked Proof the product of a convergent in measure sequence with a convergent sequence of real numbers converges in measure
Feb
7
accepted Help with part of the proof of Fubini's Theorem (for product spaces).
Feb
4
revised If $f_{n}$ are non-negative and $\int_{X}f_{n}d\mu=1$ does $\frac{1}{n}f_{n}$ converge almost-everywhere to $0$? does $\frac{1}{n^{2}}f_{n}$?
added 14 characters in body
Feb
4
accepted If $f_{n}$ are non-negative and $\int_{X}f_{n}d\mu=1$ does $\frac{1}{n}f_{n}$ converge almost-everywhere to $0$? does $\frac{1}{n^{2}}f_{n}$?
Feb
3
comment Edited: Defining a measurable pointwise limit for a sequence of measurable functions.
This answer was made irrelevant by my editing.
Feb
3
revised Edited: Defining a measurable pointwise limit for a sequence of measurable functions.
Originally there were two questions but one of them turned out to be uninteresting.
Feb
3
comment If $f_{n}$ are non-negative and $\int_{X}f_{n}d\mu=1$ does $\frac{1}{n}f_{n}$ converge almost-everywhere to $0$? does $\frac{1}{n^{2}}f_{n}$?
Wow. That is a really really nice proof.
Feb
3
revised If $f_{n}$ are non-negative and $\int_{X}f_{n}d\mu=1$ does $\frac{1}{n}f_{n}$ converge almost-everywhere to $0$? does $\frac{1}{n^{2}}f_{n}$?
added 190 characters in body; edited title
Feb
3
comment If $f_{n}$ are non-negative and $\int_{X}f_{n}d\mu=1$ does $\frac{1}{n}f_{n}$ converge almost-everywhere to $0$? does $\frac{1}{n^{2}}f_{n}$?
This doesn't really work for $\frac{1}{n^{2}}$ though or am I missing something?. You'd want to increase the value of the function to be $n^{2}$ on a set of measure $\frac{1}{n^{2}}$ and I don't see how to do that in your construction.