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 Jul 13 comment Mathematics Article Collection Books for Talented High School Students @MariusKempe Are these recommended by V. I. Arnold? Jun 8 comment Dirac delta function with a sum as the argument This answer is "2-good". BTW do you know any book containing all the tricks involving the Dirac delta function? @anon Jun 8 accepted Dirac delta function with a sum as the argument Jun 5 comment Dirac delta function with a sum as the argument @anon You say that because it will solve the transition between 2 and 3 or because you made the change of variables to obtain 2 from 1? Jun 5 revised Dirac delta function with a sum as the argument Adding an important thing to notice. Jun 5 asked Dirac delta function with a sum as the argument Apr 14 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation Adding details Apr 14 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation editing the title Apr 14 asked How fast was the Turing's machine for breaking the enigma code? Apr 11 awarded Yearling Apr 11 awarded Self-Learner Mar 18 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation adding details Mar 18 comment Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation @AlexR. I just have an initial condition: $M(t=0)=0$. Mar 18 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation correcting some expressions Mar 18 comment Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation @Qmechanic You're right. I made a mistake trying to write the general form of the equation. The correct expression of the coefficient of the sum is $c/(t+1)$. Mar 11 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation adding labels Mar 11 revised Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation adding more details and changing the title Mar 11 comment Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation @Qmechanic Maybe, I posted the question here because we, physicist, can solve equations heuristically or exactly. But answering your question: yes, it would be better. Mar 11 asked Method of solving no-homogeneous recurrence equation Dec 28 comment Why is $\lim_{x \to \infty}(\int_0^n k^{1-x}\,\,di)^{1/(1-x)} = k$ when $k,n>0$ is constant real? In that case the limit is equal to 1.