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seen Nov 17 '12 at 16:04

Nov
17
comment Prove that if a set is Peano finite, then it is Dedekind finite.
A set is Peano finite if there is a bijection between the set and a natural number. It is Dedekind finite if it is not equivalent to a proper subset of itself (the same as is in the link).
Nov
17
asked Prove that if a set is Peano finite, then it is Dedekind finite.
Oct
30
awarded  Scholar
Oct
30
accepted Show that $\bigcup_i f(A_i) = f(\bigcup_i A_i)$
Oct
30
awarded  Student
Oct
30
asked Show that $\bigcup_i f(A_i) = f(\bigcup_i A_i)$