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I'm an undergraduate student of mathematics in Germany, currently working on my bachelor thesis.


12h
answered Is $e^x$ the only morphism for addition and multiplication?
1d
comment A paradox? Or a wrong definition?
AsafKaragila: Ah, of course. @GilYoung NBG.
1d
comment A paradox? Or a wrong definition?
In NBG, you may consider it to be a class, and then it exists and the paradox remains, right? I think, one has then to define $\bigcap \mathcal{A} = \{x ∈ \text{Set};\; ∀A ∈ \mathcal{A}: x ∈ A\}$, right? Hm, this does not resolve the paradox.
May
19
awarded  Enthusiast
May
18
comment A “simple” 3rd grade problem…or is it?
This question really doesn’t deserve nearly as much attention as it gets. Of course, the teacher’s mistake is outrageous and it’s fun to laugh at their incompetence, feeling superior to them, but c’mon.
May
15
comment How discontinuous can a derivative be?
Without math.stackexchange, I don’t think I’d ever have learned this, yet imagined it. This is such a great answer. Many, many thanks to you, Dave. (And also to you, @PeterTamaroff, as you linked this answer in your profile.)
May
15
revised Does every smooth surjective function have a smooth right inverse?
progress update
May
14
comment Cantor set as a set of continued fractions?
@FrankMcGovern I wouldn’t know, I can’t view it. But since you posted it, I’m positive it would help. : — D (It says I’ve reached the viewing limit, loosely translated.)
May
14
asked Cantor set as a set of continued fractions?
May
14
comment Can someone please explain $e$ in layman's term?
Think of it as a pimped-up $2$.
May
14
comment Does every smooth surjective function have a smooth right inverse?
@GCD Nothing! I’ve forgotten about it. Thanks. But I’m also interested in a discussion of the conditions under which some left/right inverses might exist, so this doesn’t fully answer the question.
May
14
comment How to evaluate $\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+1}~dx$
Look at the edited version! It’s $x+1$ instead of $x-1$.
May
14
revised Does every smooth surjective function have a smooth right inverse?
mistake correction
May
14
revised Does every smooth surjective function have a smooth right inverse?
made the question more structured, specific and readable
May
14
asked Does every smooth surjective function have a smooth right inverse?
May
14
comment Problem on multiplicative subsets 1
@rgl4 Yes, you could say that. The statement is true.
May
14
comment Problem on multiplicative subsets 1
@rgl4 Well, yes. Exactly. Using the fact that $Γ$ is multiplicative: $$f(a_1 ·a_2) = \underbrace{f(a_1)}_{∈ Γ} · \underbrace{f(a_2)}_{∈ Γ} ∈ Γ$$ Therefore, $a_1·a_2 ∈ f^{-1}(Γ)$. So $Σ = f^{-1} (Γ)$ is multiplicative and will do the job for $f(f^{-1}(Γ)) = Γ$ because of the surjectivity of $f$.
May
14
comment Problem on multiplicative subsets 1
@rgl4 Let $a_1, a_2 ∈ f^{-1}(Γ)$. What can you say about $f(a_1·a_2)$?
May
14
comment Free online mathematical software
And qtoctave adds a GUI similar to Matlab’s as far as I can tell.
May
14
answered Problem on multiplicative subsets 1