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Hello! I am a master student in algebraic topology at the University of Oslo.


Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Yeah I noticed that one too. If there is such a homotopy-equivalence ever (unless $X$ is $n$-connected or something) it seems to be highly non-obvious. I've not read that, no. Do you have a good reference for it? Thanks!
Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
I would think so. $\Omega X:=\hom_*(S^1,X)$ and $\Omega^n X:=\hom_*(S^1,\Omega^{n-1}(X)$ is the $n$-th loopspace of pointed maps. Was that what you were thinking about?
Mar
24
awarded  Editor
Mar
24
revised Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
added 170 characters in body; added 1 characters in body
Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Depending on the response I might ask this on MathOverflow as well. Please stop me with a comment if you think this question is too broad for that page :D
Mar
24
awarded  Student
Mar
24
asked Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Aug
16
awarded  Teacher
Jul
28
answered Usage of dx in Integrals