903 reputation
511
bio website
location Oslo, Norway
age 26
visits member for 4 years
seen Jun 22 at 12:03

Master student in algebraic topology at the University of Oslo.


Apr
6
answered Why is one “$\infty$” number enough for complex numbers?
Apr
3
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
@Ryan Sounds good to me. Thank you!
Apr
3
comment Two definitions of exactness
Thanks a lot! I suspected it would have something to do with building the limit from products and equalizers. That fact will probably prove a good exercise :)
Apr
3
awarded  Scholar
Apr
3
accepted Two definitions of exactness
Apr
3
asked Two definitions of exactness
Mar
27
awarded  Supporter
Mar
24
answered Why do we use the smash product in the category of based topological spaces?
Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Yeah I noticed that one too. If there is such a homotopy-equivalence ever (unless $X$ is $n$-connected or something) it seems to be highly non-obvious. I've not read that, no. Do you have a good reference for it? Thanks!
Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
I would think so. $\Omega X:=\hom_*(S^1,X)$ and $\Omega^n X:=\hom_*(S^1,\Omega^{n-1}(X)$ is the $n$-th loopspace of pointed maps. Was that what you were thinking about?
Mar
24
awarded  Editor
Mar
24
revised Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
added 170 characters in body; added 1 characters in body
Mar
24
comment Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Depending on the response I might ask this on MathOverflow as well. Please stop me with a comment if you think this question is too broad for that page :D
Mar
24
awarded  Student
Mar
24
asked Is it ever true that $\Omega^n(\bigvee_I X)\simeq\bigvee_I\Omega^n X$?
Aug
16
awarded  Teacher
Jul
28
answered Usage of dx in Integrals