Kidburla
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 Mar 7 comment math fallacy problem: $-1= (-1)^3 = (-1)^{6/2} = \sqrt{(-1)^6}= 1$? This is the best answer IMO. The fact is that $\sqrt{1}$ can equal $1$ or $-1$. Jul 15 awarded Supporter May 11 comment Is the empty set Lebesgue measurable? To be honest, I find the result quite counter-intuitive. For example, if $S$ and $T$ are distinct measurable non-empty sets of real numbers with $S$ a subset of $T$, then we can say that $\mu(S) < \mu(T)$. This is intuitive - if you have a line and then you cut a bit off then the resulting line is shorter. However if you remove the non-empty restriction then this breaks down - let $S = \emptyset$ and $T = \{0\}$, then $S$ is a distinct subset of $T$ but $\mu(S) = \mu(T)$. However, despite my intuition, the empty set is indeed considered to be measurable, as answers have indicated. Sep 24 awarded Autobiographer Apr 18 awarded Nice Answer Feb 1 awarded Teacher Feb 1 answered Problems that are largely believed to be true, but are unresolved