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| bio | website | math.stackexchange.com/users/… |
|---|---|---|
| location | Moscow, Russia | |
| age | 23 | |
| visits | member for | 10 months |
| seen | 2 days ago | |
| stats | profile views | 516 |
The riddle does not exist. If a question can be put at all, then it can also be answered.
Wittgenstein, Ludwig
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May 13 |
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Umbral calculus with negative indices (and powers) @Did It does not, hence my comments. Half the bounty value was automatically awarded to the top voted answer. |
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May 12 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @MattGroff I do not want to find a series. I want to use some umbral-like linear functional to interpret $a^n$ as $a_n$, which is analogous to (35) in this MathWorld article. |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @MattGroff See also this. |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @MattGroff I want to do something analogous to (35) in this MathWorld article. |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents added 2 characters in body |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @Sh3ljohn Does the question make sense now? |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @Did What is NARQ? |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents added 100 characters in body |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents added 100 characters in body |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents added 100 characters in body |
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May 11 |
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Treating indices as if they were exponents @ChrisEagle Umbral calculus (see Roman; p. 96) |
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May 11 |
asked | Treating indices as if they were exponents |
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May 8 |
awarded | Caucus |
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May 6 |
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Showing $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin{x}}{x} \ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}$ using complex integration @aziiri Recall that $e^{iz} = \cos z + i\sin z$ and use the Squeeze Theorem. |
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May 2 |
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Umbral calculus with negative indices (and powers) Can you elaborate? |
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May 2 |
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Umbral calculus with negative indices (and powers) I also think that if $a_{−1}, a_{−2}, a_{-3}, \ldots$ is our infinite sequence, then if we insist on using nonnegative integers we let $\{a_{-n}\}_{n \in \mathbb N} = \{b_{n - 1}\}_{n \in \mathbb N}$. But it seems unconventional and I could not find any articles or books that discuss this. Can you justify it rigorously so that I can give you 50 rep? |
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Apr 27 |
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Integral of a floor function Graph $f(x)$ and calculate the area of each rectangle. |
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Apr 26 |
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Umbral calculus with negative indices (and powers) edited tags |
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Apr 24 |
asked | Umbral calculus with negative indices (and powers) |
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Apr 24 |
revised |
The geometric mean of primes less than or equal to $x$ deleted 3 characters in body |
