316 reputation
26
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location Dublin, Ireland
age 27
visits member for 1 years, 9 months
seen Apr 18 at 20:54

3rd year student reading Theoretical Physics at Trinity College Dublin.


Sep
28
awarded  Yearling
Aug
12
awarded  Popular Question
Jul
6
accepted Have there been efforts to introduce non Greek or Latin alphabets into mathematics?
Jul
6
awarded  Scholar
Jul
6
accepted Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
Jul
6
revised Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
added 2 characters in body
Jul
6
comment Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
And to respond to your answer, if I understand correctly, this isn't necessarily the case in a closed set since if we take a boundary point, then there will be some direction in which we can't adjust $x$ such that it is still in $V$?
Jul
6
awarded  Editor
Jul
6
comment Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
Yes, I meant $\mathbb{R}^n$! sorry, I should have looked over my post more carefully before submitting :(
Jul
6
revised Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
typo: domain changed from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$
Jul
6
comment Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
From the responses, it seems I managed to garble something terribly between the blackboard and my notes. You politely ascribe the error to my lecturer, but I think that's unlikely :) So, in hope that something can be retrieved, he was referring to the 'independent' in the function definition, and saying that saying it's being a function of n independent variables was somehow equivalent to its being defined on an open set or something. If this again is insufficiently close to any meaningful sentence then I will admit defeat that my transcription was irretrievably inaccurate...
Jul
5
asked Why is a function of $n$ independent variables equivalent to one defined on an open set?
Jul
2
awarded  Good Question
Jul
1
comment Have there been efforts to introduce non Greek or Latin alphabets into mathematics?
I think it's wonderful that you posted this, since prior to being a student of physics, I came from a computer background, and thinking about the lack of brevity in computer science notation while studying for exams led me directly to Iverson's article Notation as a Tool of Thought, which in turn led me to the J language (which I am still a fan and advocate of) and also probably indirectly pushed me towards my current field of study, via Math. And then, my thoughts on notation, specifically the Iverson/APL/J school of thought made me wonder what mathematicians thought about new notation.
Jul
1
comment Have there been efforts to introduce non Greek or Latin alphabets into mathematics?
I suppose for the purposes of the conversation Fraktur would count as a different alphabet...when mathematicians work on the blackboard how do they represent things which would normally use Fraktur? Unlike say blackboard bold symbols like $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$ I'd imagine it's rather hard to make an obvious $\mathfrak{a}$ on the blackboard. Do they try make it 'spiky' or just use ordinary letters?
Jul
1
awarded  Supporter
Jul
1
awarded  Nice Question
Jul
1
awarded  Student
Jul
1
asked Have there been efforts to introduce non Greek or Latin alphabets into mathematics?