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Dec
11
accepted Does a Fourier transformation on a (pseudo-)Riemannian manifold make sense?
Dec
11
comment Does a Fourier transformation on a (pseudo-)Riemannian manifold make sense?
Thank you very much for your thoughtful and detailed answer. If I got you correctly, the notion only makes sense for the existence of a timelike killing vector, say $\partial_t$. This should imply that a time <> frequency FT only makes sense for stationary solutions in which the quotient manifold $M/\psi_t$ ($\psi_t$ being the local flux to $\partial_t$) exists. Hence, the FT is only feasible for dynamical field theories if the dynamics are independent from the (background) metric.
Dec
11
awarded  Supporter
Dec
11
awarded  Student
Dec
11
asked Does a Fourier transformation on a (pseudo-)Riemannian manifold make sense?
Dec
7
awarded  Teacher
Dec
6
answered Why study “curves” instead of 1-manifolds?