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Bill
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Doubts on showing that $g=0$ a.e. on $[0,1]$ given that $\int_p^q g(x)~d\mu =0$ for rationals $p,q\in[0,1]$
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Help regarding a proposition in Royden(4th ed)
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Describing the outer measure generated by a set function.
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Help regarding a proposition in Royden(4th ed)
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Describing the outer measure generated by a set function.
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Doubts on showing that $g=0$ a.e. on $[0,1]$ given that $\int_p^q g(x)~d\mu =0$ for rationals $p,q\in[0,1]$
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