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 Jul2 awarded Curious Apr15 comment Whether convergence in L2 norm implies convergence a.e.? Thank you very much, @Potato. Apr15 accepted Whether convergence in L2 norm implies convergence a.e.? Apr15 comment Whether convergence in L2 norm implies convergence a.e.? Thank you very much, @julien. I am not sure if I should delete the post. Apr15 asked Whether convergence in L2 norm implies convergence a.e.? Apr3 accepted How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? Apr3 comment How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? I like your answer also. It looks like a textbook. Apr3 comment How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? Great, @Caran. Thank you so much! Apr3 comment How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? I plot it. It has periodic downward peaks. Apr3 comment How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? I hope to get things like $\int_0^\infty e^{-x}xdx$, but I cannot find a way. Apr3 asked How to determine the convergence of this improper integral? Mar24 comment Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Thank you so much, @YACP. Now I am clear. Mar24 comment Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Thank you, @Babak. I have seen that theorem. Mar24 accepted Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Mar24 comment Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Thank you very much, @YACP. I like your answer. Could you explain a little about how to get this? $G\simeq \mathbb{Z}^n/\ker(f)\simeq \mathbb Zy_1\oplus\cdots\oplus\mathbb Zy_n/\mathbb Zd_1y_1\oplus\cdots\oplus\mathbb Zd_ry_r$. Mar23 revised Why finitely generated abelian group is free? deleted 65 characters in body Mar23 comment Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Thank Ittay (I can use FTFGAG), @Babak, and Martin for your reference and hint. Mar23 asked Why finitely generated abelian group is free? Mar9 comment If $f=\chi_{\{0\}}$, how to show $\|f\|_\infty=1$? Thank you so much, @Isaac. It is a very nice proof. Mar9 accepted If $f=\chi_{\{0\}}$, how to show $\|f\|_\infty=1$?