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Apr
8
revised Mathematical Career Advice to a young 16 year wannabe mathematician
removed personal information. minor edits otherwise
Apr
8
revised A Young Math Enthusiast's Fear
retracted personal information, and minor edits
Mar
19
awarded  Notable Question
Mar
16
revised Assume that $ 1a_1+2a_2+\cdots+na_n=1$, where the $a_j$ are real numbers.
Formatting
Mar
16
suggested approved edit on Assume that $ 1a_1+2a_2+\cdots+na_n=1$, where the $a_j$ are real numbers.
Dec
10
awarded  Caucus
Oct
28
comment finding numbers to make both sides equal
@bof Sorry! I meant the largest. Silly error!
Oct
28
comment finding numbers to make both sides equal
Either by solving $1000=x(x+1)(x+2)$ or by brute-force, you'll find out that $45$ is the smallest $x$ that works. So, anything below $45$ is fair game.
Oct
17
comment Solving an exercise in Pinter's Abstract Algebra
The set you describe is called the normalizer of $H$ in $G$. Check out proofwiki.org/wiki/Normalizer_is_Subgroup
Sep
30
awarded  Explainer
Sep
12
awarded  Popular Question
Sep
11
awarded  Notable Question
Jul
24
awarded  Good Question
Jul
2
awarded  Curious
May
28
awarded  Yearling
May
24
awarded  Good Answer
May
2
comment Piecewise bijection $f: \Bbb R \to (\Bbb R$ \ $ \{1\})$
@user129120 Wow, My bad! For some reason, I thought you were asking for a function $f:\mathbb R \setminus \{1\}\to \mathbb R$. However, Since the function I proposed is a bijection, its inverse is a function from $\mathbb R \to \mathbb R \setminus \{1\}$. Kind of a cheat but still!
May
1
comment Piecewise bijection $f: \Bbb R \to (\Bbb R$ \ $ \{1\})$
Is there a particular reason why you would need a piece-wise function? Then you could use $ \ f:x\to \frac 1{1-x}$.
Feb
26
revised Prove that $e ^ π$ > $π ^ e$.
Formatting
Feb
26
suggested approved edit on Prove that $e ^ π$ > $π ^ e$.