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28

For $x < 1$, we have the Taylor series expansion: $$f(x):= \frac{-1}{4} \log \left(- \frac{x - x^{-1}}{x + x^{-1}} \right) = \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^6}{6} + \frac{x^{10}}{10} + \frac{x^{14}}{14} + \ldots $$ Then $$f(x) + \frac{f(x^2)}{2} + \frac{f(x^4)}{4} + \frac{f(x^8)}{8} + \ldots = \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^4}{4} + \frac{x^6}{6} + \frac{x^8}{8} + ...


26

It is a simple trigonometric exercise to show that $$\frac{\sinh\pi n\sqrt2 -\sin\pi n\sqrt2}{\cosh\pi n\sqrt2 -\cos\pi n\sqrt2}= \Re \left(\coth \pi n z_0+z_0^2\coth\frac{\pi n}{z_0}\right),\tag{$\spadesuit$}$$ with $z_0=e^{i\pi/4}$. Recall the Ramanujan identity (several nice proofs of which may be found here): ...


17

Of course there is. The fastest way to obtain it is to heuristically write $\cos(\pi\ln n)$ as $\frac12(n^{i\pi}+n^{-i\pi})$. The answer is then given by $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos\left(\pi\ln n\right)}{n^2}=\frac{\zeta(2+i\pi)+\zeta(2-i\pi)}{2}.$$


11

It will be helpful to start from an explanation of the origin and the proof of the Ramanujan identity. These are hidden (not very deeply) in the theory of elliptic functions. Indeed, Jacobi elliptic function $\operatorname{dn}(z,k)$ has Fourier series $$\operatorname{dn}(z,k)=\frac{\pi}{2K}\left[1+2\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos n\pi\frac{z}{K}}{\cosh n \pi ...


10

Let $$ f(x)=\prod_{n=0}^\infty\left(1-x^{2^n}\right)^{1/2^n}\tag{1} $$ and $$ g(x)=\prod_{n=0}^\infty\left(1+x^{2^n}\right)^{1/2^n}\tag{2} $$ Then $$ \begin{align} f(x)\,g(x) &=\prod_{n=0}^\infty\left(1-x^{2^{n+1}}\right)^{1/2^n}\\ &=\prod_{n=1}^\infty\left(1-x^{2^n}\right)^{2/2^n}\\ &=\left(\frac{f(x)}{1-x}\right)^2\tag{3} \end{align} $$ from ...


10

The sequence $(\sin n)$ doesn't converge to $0$ so the given series is divergent.


10

Actually, this sum converges for every $\alpha>0$. Step I. The sequence $s_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\sin kx$ is bounded. Indeed, if $x=2m\pi$, then $s_n=0$. If $x\ne2m\pi$, then $\sin(x/2)\ne 0$, and $$ s_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\sin kx=\mathrm{Im}\left(\mathrm{e}^{xi}+\mathrm{e}^{2xi}+\cdots\mathrm{e}^{nxi}\right)= ...


9

Recall that $\cos(x)=(e^{ix}+e^{-ix})/2$ and $\sin(x)=(e^{ix}-e^{-ix})/2i$, so your sum can be rewritten as $$\sum_{j=1}^k\biggl[\frac{e^{j\pi i/k}+e^{-j\pi i/k}}2\biggr]^n\,\biggl[\frac{e^{nj\pi i/k}-e^{-nj\pi i/k}}{2i}\biggr]\,.$$ Applying binomial theorem on the first factor (of each summand) your sum becomes $$\begin{align*} ...


8

I don't know the answer (I should have! -- see below), but in my opinion a lot of people are misinterpreting the question, so perhaps it is worth an answer to try to set this straight. Here is an analogy: trigonometric series is to Fourier series as power series is to Taylor series. In other words, a trigonometric series is just any series of the form ...


8

$$\frac z{e^z-1}+\frac z 2=1+\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{B_n}{n!}z^n$$ Replace $z$ with $2iz$ to get $$\color{red}{z\cot(z)}=\frac{iz(e^{iz}+e^{-iz})}{e^{iz}-e^{-iz}}=1+\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{B_n}{n!}(2iz)^n=1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{B_{2n}}{(2n)!}(-1)^n(2z)^{2n}$$ Now use following trigonometric formula $$\tan(z)=\cot(z)-2\cot(2z).$$


8

If $z^{5}-1=0$, then $$(z^{4}+z^{3}+z^{2}+z+1)(z-1)=0,$$ because $z^{5}-1=(z^{4}+z^{3}+z^{2}+z+1)(z-1)$. This implies that $$ z^{4}+z^{3}+z^{2}+z+1=0$$ or $z-1=0$. Since \begin{equation*} z=\cos \frac{2\pi }{5}+i\sin \frac{2\pi }{5}=e^{i2\pi /5}\ne 1 \end{equation*} is a root of $z^5-1=0 $ and \begin{equation*} z^{k}=\cos \frac{2k\pi }{5}+i\sin \frac{2k\pi ...


8

We use this, which is somewhat complicated. Let $S$ be the product $\prod_{k=1}^{90} \sin k^\circ $. Then $S^2 = \prod_{k=1}^{179} \sin k^\circ = \frac{ 180} { 2^{179}}$ Hence $S = \sqrt{ 10} \frac{3}{2^{89} }$. I believe your method of using $\sin 2\theta$ repeatedly is better, in part because the proof of the quoted theorem is complicated.


8

Heuristics: Say $a_n$ is near zero but not zero, then $\sin(x)=x-\frac16x^3+o(x^3)$ when $x\to0$ hence $$a_{n+1}=a_n-\frac16a_n^3+o(a_n^3).$$ If $a_n\sim c/n^b$, this imposes that $c^2=3$ and $b=\frac12$, hence the idea that $a_n\sim\alpha\sqrt{\alpha/n}$ with $\alpha=\pm1$ depending on $a_1$. Idea of the full proof: Change variables and consider ...


8

$$\int_0^{\pi} \sin(nx)=\frac{1}{n}\left(-\cos(nx)\right|_0^{\pi} =\frac{1}{n}\left(1-(-1)^n\right)$$ Hence, $$\int_0^{\pi} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n\sin(nx)}{e^n}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1-(-1)^n}{e^n}=\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{e^n}\right)-\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{e^n}\right)$$ ...


7

Consider $$\prod_{k = 0}^{n - 2}\cos(2^k \theta)$$ Multiplying numerator and denominator by $2\sin(\theta)$ we get, $$\frac{2\sin(\theta)\cos(\theta)}{2\sin(\theta)}\prod_{k = 1}^{n - 2} \cos(2^k\theta) = \frac{\sin(2\theta)}{2\sin(\theta)}\prod_{k = 1}^{n - 2} \cos(2^k\theta)$$ Now, repeatedly multiplying and dividing by 2, we can reduce the above to, ...


7

Use: $$ \sin \frac{\theta}{2} \cdot \cos(k \theta) = \underbrace{\frac{1}{2} \sin\left( \left(k+\frac{1}{2}\right)\theta\right)}_{f_{k+1}} - \underbrace{\frac{1}{2} \sin\left( \left(k-\frac{1}{2}\right)\theta\right)}_{f_{k}} $$ Thus $$ \begin{eqnarray} \sin \frac{\theta}{2} \cdot \sum_{k=1}^n \cos(k \theta) &=& \sum_{k=1}^n \left(f_{k+1} - ...


7

Hint: The partial sums have an explicit form, because there are the imaginary part of some geometric series. $$ \sum_{k=1}^n e^{ik} = \frac {1-e^{in}}{1-e^i} = \frac {e^{-in/2}-e^{in/2}}{e^{-i/2}-e^{i/2}} \frac{e^{in/2}}{e^{i/2}} = \frac{\sin \frac n2}{\sin \frac 12} e^{i(n-1)/2} $$ so the $n$th partial sum is $$ \frac{1}{\sin \frac 12} \sin \frac ...


7

You've done fine so far. Just factor out $2\cos x$ from the numerator: $$2 \cos^2 x + 2 \cos x \sin x = 2\cos x(\cos x + \sin x)$$ With that as your numerator, simply cancel the common factor $(\cos x + \sin x)$ from numerator and denominator, leaving you with the desired $2\cos x$.


6

HINT: $$\frac{1}{\sin k^\circ\sin(k+1)^\circ}=\frac1{\sin1^\circ}\frac{\sin (k+1-k)^\circ}{\sin k^\circ\sin(k+1)^\circ}$$ $$=\frac1{\sin1^\circ}\cdot\frac{\cos k^\circ\sin(k+1)^\circ-\sin k^\circ\cos(k+1)^\circ}{\sin k^\circ\sin(k+1)^\circ}=\frac1{\sin1^\circ}\left(\cot k^\circ-\cot(k+1)^\circ\right)$$ Can you recognize Telescoping series / sum?


6

A standard example is $$ f(t)= \sum_{n>1} \frac{\sin(nt)}{\log(n)}$$ The conjugate of $f$ is a Fourier series but $f\not\in L^1(\mathbb{T})$ and hence is no Fourier series. For further explanation see Katznelson's book page 85. (Edit: If $f$ is not in $L^1(\mathbb{T})$ it is hard to define Fourier coefficients. Added 29/8 - 2010 Here is a screen dump from ...


6

You can also use that $$2\sin(x)\Bigl[\cos 2x+\cos 4x + \cos 6x+\cos 8x\Bigr] = \sin 9x-\sin x = 2\cos 5x\sin 4x$$ so that inserting $x=\tfrac\pi5=\pi-4\tfrac\pi5$ yields the desired result.


6

Hint $$a_r=r(r+1)$$ $$\frac{a_r-a_{r-1}}{1+a_ra_{r-1}}=\frac{2r}{1-r^2+r^4}$$


6

$$\tan rx=\frac{\binom r1\tan x-\binom r3\tan^3x+\cdots}{1-\binom r2\tan^2x+\cdots}\text{ (Proof below) }$$ Now, if $\tan rx=\tan r\theta\implies rx=n\pi+r\theta$ where $n$ is any integer $\implies x=n\frac{\pi}r+\theta$ If $r$ is even, $=2m$(say) $$\tan2m\theta=\tan2mx=\frac{\binom {2m}1\tan x-\binom {2m}3\tan^3x+\cdots+\binom ...


5

Hint You could use $$\int _0^{\pi }\:\sum _{n=0}^{\infty \:}\frac{n\cdot \sin \left(nx\right)}{e^n}dx=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty \:}\int _0^{\pi }\:\frac{n\cdot \sin \left(nx\right)}{e^n}dx=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty \:}e^{-n} (1-\cos (\pi n))$$ At this point, I stop since appeared Pranav Arora's very nice answer.


5

There's one situation in which minutes and seconds are remarkably useful: doing celestial navigation without a calculator. It turns out that the circumference of the earth at the equator is just about 360 * 60 miles; it's close enough that folks defined the "Nautical mile" to be about 7/6 of a land-mile, so that there are exactly 360 * 60 nautical miles ...


5

Your sequence converges to $$J_1(1) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \sin(t+\cos t) \, \mathrm{d} t \approx 0.440051. $$ The series expansion of the Bessel function gives an alternative expression for this constant: $$J_1(1) = \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^m}{m!(m+1)!2^{2m+1}}.$$ This expression easily implies that $J_1(1)$ is irrational. Consider first the ...


5

Here's a couple other trigonometric approaches: $$ \cos\left(\frac{2\pi}{5}\right) \ + \ \cos\left(\frac{4\pi}{5}\right) \ + \ \cos\left(\frac{6\pi}{5}\right) \ + \ \cos\left(\frac{8\pi}{5}\right) $$ $$ = \ \left[ \cos\left(\frac{2\pi}{5}\right) \ + \ \cos\left(\frac{8\pi}{5}\right) \right] \ + \ \left[\cos\left(\frac{4\pi}{5}\right) \ + \ ...


5

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