1
vote
4answers
168 views

Why do these expressions tend to zero?

In a chapter on Markov chains, it is claimed that $\binom {2n}{n} p^n(1-p)^n$ (where $p$ is a probability) tends to $0$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$. But why is this so? It is also claimed that for an ...
3
votes
1answer
132 views

Levy processes with no positive jumps

Let X be a Levy process with no positive jumps and $\tau_y:=\inf\{t> 0: X_t > y\}$ then we have $$X_{\tau_y}=y\text{ on }\{\tau_y <\infty\}.$$ Could you explain that why? and does it hold ...