The question is asking me to prove that $f(a \circ b) = f(a) \circ f(b)$. This I believe is referencing our previous proof which tells us: Assume $g:x \rightarrow y $ is a bijection and for an $a ...
I've read the definition of composition algebra in wikipedia, but I couldn't understand whether it relates to the usual function composition $(\circ)$. Are these two things related at all? ...