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0
votes
1answer
247 views

Illustration of vector calculus vs. differential forms

I am looking for a nice illustration of how vector calculus relates to differential forms. A demonstration that employs physics is appreciable (e.g. electromagnetism). In particular, while dualizing ...
5
votes
0answers
117 views

Two “different” adjoints of exterior derivative on manifolds with boundary in the $L^2$-setting

The follow problem appears in the setting of $L^2$-differential forms on manifolds with boundary. An abstracted operator theoretic problem is given below. Suppose $M$ is a smooth Riemannian manifold ...
3
votes
1answer
309 views

Bundle orientability vs manifold orientability

Given a vector bundle, I am a bit hazy about the difference between the notions of its orientability as a bundle and as a manifold. I think I know that the following are true, A tangent bundle of a ...
7
votes
1answer
331 views

Is there a Stokes theorem for covariant derivatives?

A $V$-valued differential form on $M$ is a smooth map $\omega : TM \to V$ such that $\omega$ restricted to any tangent space $T_p M$ is an element of the $V$-valued exterior algebra $\Lambda^n (T_p M, ...
1
vote
1answer
170 views

If $S^{2n+1}$ is covering space of $X$, then $X$ is orientable.

Is there any direct way to prove that $n$-manifold is orientable? In AT we can just calculate $n$'th homology group and check whether it's $\mathbb Z$ or $0$. But I want a geometric method, using ...
9
votes
2answers
557 views

Geometric interpretation of connection forms, torsion forms, curvature forms, etc

I have just begun learning about the connection 1-forms, torsion 2-forms, and curvature 2-forms in the context of Riemannian manifolds. However, I am finding it hard to relate these notions to any ...
3
votes
0answers
69 views

The canonical (1,1)-form on a compact Riemann surface gives locally a subharmonic function

Let $X$ be a compact connected Riemann surface of genus $g>0$. We have the so called canonical (1,1)-form $\mu$ on $X$ defined as follows. Choose an orthonormal basis $(\omega_1,\ldots, \omega_g)$ ...
21
votes
1answer
442 views

functoriality of derivations

I seem to have problems understanding algebraically why given a map of manifolds $f: M \to N$ we get a bundle map $TM \to f^*TN$. Now, fiberwise it's all good. But I do not understand how to define ...
4
votes
1answer
159 views

Exercise concerning the Lefschetz fixed point number

I can't see a good approach to the third part of the following problem: Let $f: M \to M$ be a smooth map of a compact oriented manifold into itself. Denote by $H^q(f)$ the induced map on the ...
8
votes
2answers
324 views

Examples of Computations in Algebraic Topology

I have started reading "Differential Forms in Algebraic Topology" by Bott, Tu, recently. While I'm quite happy with the exposition of the theorems and explanation of theoretical results, I'm missing ...
5
votes
1answer
362 views

How to find or guess the homotopy operator?

In the proof of the Poincare Lemma for compactly supported cohomology,the homotopy operator K suddenly appears and satisfies the equation 1-e*π*=±(dK-Kd),that is too lucky!I do not know how to find or ...
4
votes
1answer
99 views

How to prove that this kind of differential form exists on an algebraic curve?

The following is a problem in Miranda's Algebraic Curves and Riemann Surfaces. Given any algebraic curve $X$ and a point $p \in X$, show that there is a meromorphic $1$-form $\omega$ on $X$ whose ...
11
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1answer
398 views

Coordinate free proof that curvature is the “square” of the connection

Here's the setup. Consider a vector bundle $E$ over a manifold $M$ and let $\Omega^*(M, E)$ denote the space of $E$-valued differential forms (i.e. the space of sections of the vector bundle ...
6
votes
1answer
408 views

Differential Form on a Riemann Surface

The following problem is basically from Miranda's "Algebraic Curves and Riemann Surfaces", which I am reading on my own; if there are any rules against posting textbook problems, my apologies! Let ...
13
votes
2answers
708 views

Intuition behind $dx \wedge dy=-dy \wedge dx$

I was re-reading this old book of mine; and I noticed that in defining the rules of differential forms, it "makes sense" that we have the rule $dx \wedge dx=0$ because if $dx$ is infinitesimal, then ...

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