3
votes
4answers
174 views

If $\sum\limits_{k=1}^n y_k\geq n$ and $\sum\limits_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{y_k}\geq n$, then $\prod\limits_{k=1}^n y_k\geq 1$?

Let $y_1,\ldots y_n$ be positive real numbers satisfying $y_1+\cdots+y_n\geq n$ and $\displaystyle{\frac{1}{y_1}+\cdots+\frac{1}{y_n}\geq n}$. Is it true that $y_1y_2\cdots y_n\geq 1$?
1
vote
1answer
155 views

Bound on deviation between arithmetic and harmonic mean?

It is well known that, if HM denotes the harmonic mean and AM the arithmetic mean, we have $$ AM(x) \ge HM(x) $$ Now I am dealing with the expression $$ \frac{1}{HM(x)} - \frac{1}{AM(x)} $$ A ...