I have posted about induction on it's own so I think I understand that part. But I'm slightly confused when it comes to using induction to show that n+1 is also the derivative. The base case if fine, I just set n=1. And show that is equal to the derivative not using the formula. But how about k+1? Can I just choose k=the-basecase. And than prove k+1 by just finding f''(x)?
f(n)(x) = an-1eax(ax+n)