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Let be the fractional derivative $ D^{a}f(x) $ for some real positive $a >0 $

My question is if $ \int_{a}^{b}dx D^{a}f(x)g(x) = C(a)\int_{a}^{b}dx D^{a}g(x)f(x) $

Provided that $ f(b)=f(a)=g(b)=g(a)=0$ and the constant $ C(a) $ depends only on the value of the number 'a'

If a is a positive integer then by Leibniz's formula $ C(a)=(-1)^{a}$

However I would be interested in knowing if this also holds for fractional derivatives.

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What definition of the fractional derivative are you using? Caputo's or Riemann–Liouville? –  J. M. Dec 23 '11 at 15:27
Riemann-Liouville i guess :D :D the definition, which uses the fractional derivative in terms of the integral $ \int_{0}^{x}dtf(t)(x-t)^{n-1} $ –  Jose Garcia Dec 23 '11 at 15:35
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